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How should this hand be bid, given Benji Acol and RKCB and never Gerber

edited February 2011 in All Things Bridge
South was dealer and the occasion was the club's weekly duplicate night.

N
S AKQxx
H QJxx
D QJx
CQ

S
S xx
H AK
D Kxxx
C Axxxx

South opened 1C not fancying 1NT with two doubletons. North replied 1S and South rebid 1NT.
North rebid 3H which was followed by South's 3NT showing no support for the majors and a desire
to settle for a reasonable looking game. North then bid 4C. South took this to be delayed support for clubs after
failing to find a major suit fit. South bid 5C and North carried on with 6NT. This failed as there was a 4-2 split in Diamonds and Spades. In the ensuing cat fight. North pointed out (at length) that South should have rebid 2C, not 1NT
and that 4C was asking not supporting as it was bid after a no trump bid.

Help please

JackC

Comments

  • edited February 2011
    South's aversion to opening 1NT with two doubletons is understandable, but he cannot then show a strong NT (by rebidding 1NT) -- unless, of course, he has decided to upgrade his hand to 15-17. If not, he is forced to rebid 2C. Yes, this is unpleasant with that suit, but sometimes we don't have an attractive bid available. In the US, they often get around this problem by bidding diamonds and then clubs with hands like this, but I have no idea how they untangle the shapes after that. So there is definitely a case to be made for getting the hand off your chest at once and just opening 1NT.

    4C certainly sounds like delayed support, or anyway showing something in clubs and a desire to carry on. I guess it could also be looking for a diamond control.
  • edited 11:31AM
    Thanks Daisy, I take your point. Declarer felt that a five card suit and 14HCP was a bit strong for 1NT, and that a 1NT rebid was the smaller lie. As stated the results were unfortunate.

    JackC
  • edited February 2011
    I don't think there is a lot wrong with upgrading this hand. I probably wouldn't, because of the AK doubleton, but my favourite partner would do it, and he's a much better player than I am.

    4C was a strange bid, but as far as the result is concerned you were really unlucky. With 6 losers opposite 5 (if you are unfamiliar with the LTC read this excellent article: http://www.bridge-forum.com/i-trick-1a.htm ) you can reasonably expect to make a grand a lot of the time. The problem is that the hands could hardly fit worse. Even so your slam was about 60%.
  • edited 11:31AM
    Daisy
    Please do not use the LTC to evaluate a hand until you have found a 9 card trump fit. HCP is better for evaluating NT hands.
    It would be interesting to know what tens you all had. Assuming no tens I think you both slightly over-valued you hands. I would rebid 2c instead of 1N.
    The 4c bid is not Gerber imo. It is 3 card support. Once 5c has been bid and therefore has clearly not shown aces then pushing on to 6N is reckless and a 5N signoff can be bid
  • edited 11:31AM
    I agree that 4C should not be Gerber. I would have rasied 3NT to a quantitative 4NT. We have no fit so opposite a minimum 6NT is not likely to be cold.
    Regardless of how this auction started(no real problem with 1C followed by 1NT) the 5C response told North that a wheel had fallen off just by looking at his hand so to bid 6NT was a wild gamble but probably no more so than bidding 4C even if it were Gerber. Can't think why 6NT is a 60% contract. If diamonds break you don't have 12 tricks unless spades also break or they lead a club away from the King at trick one so in practice you need the spades to be 3-3 which is a shade under 36%
  • edited 11:31AM
    Thank you both. It's much clearer now
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